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#Math #NT
For the proof, let p and q be coprime
Rearrangement
x=a \: mod \: p\\
x=b \: mod \: q
Subtract a from both equations
x-a=0 \: mod \: p\\
x-a=b-a \: mod \: q
The Underlying Problem
Let m be an integer from 0 to q-1 (inclusive), and r be an integer from 0 to q-1 (inclusive)
mp=r \: mod \: q
There are q possible values of m, and q possible values of r.
Since p and q are coprime, the remainders cannot repeat until after m > q-1
Therefore, there is a unique value of m to produce any remainder r in the above equation.
Putting it all Together
If we look at the last equation in Rearrangement, we see it matches the equation in The Underlying Problem, where b-a corresponds to r, and x-a corresponds to mp.
So, we can see there is one unique solution for x in the interval of 0 to pq-1 (inclusive)
We can extend this by saying there will be a solution pq larger than another solution, making the solutions expressible via mod.
The Underlying Problem (but rigour)
Again start with
mp \equiv r \mod q
Suppose m_1 and m_2 are two m that give the same r. Then pm_1 \equiv pm_2 \mod q. By the cancellation law m_1 \equiv m_2 \mod q, since \gcd(p, q) = 1.
Cancellation Law Proof (Brownie Points)
pm_1 - pm_2 = p(m_1 - m_2)
Know q divides pm_1 - pm_2 since they are both the same mod q, therefore q divides the RHS. By Euclid’s Lemma q must divide m_1 - m_2, meaning m_1 \equiv m_2 \mod q.
Final Theorem
Let p and q be coprime. If:
then:
x \: rem \: pq
exists and is unique.
Notes
x \: = 0 \: mod \: y\\
x \: rem \: y = 0
both mean x is divisible by y.
x=a \: mod \: p\\
x=b \: mod \: q